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Indian Polity Preamble of Indian Constitution

by Mr. DJ
written by Mr. DJ

GK Quiz on Indian Polity Preamble of Indian Constitution

Preamble of the Indian Constitution is like the pillar of the Indian Constitution. There are a lot of questions are asked on this topic. So aspirants need to solve these questions with utmost care.

GK Questions and Answer on Indian Polity

In this article, a questionnaire of 10 questions on “Preamble of the Indian Constitution” is being given. This set contains answers of the questions for the convenience of the students. We hope this quiz will help a lot to the aspirants preparing for UPSC/ PCS / SSC / CDS and other competitive exams.

  1. Which of the following word has not been written in the preamble of the Indian Constitution?

(A) Sovereign

(B) Socialist

(C) Democratic

(D) Indians

Ans. D

  1. Which of the following statements is not true?

(A) The date of implementation of the Indian Constitution is November 26, 1949

(B) The “Secular” word was added by the 42nd Constitution Amendment

(C) The 42nd Constitutional Amendment was done in 1976

(D) Social, Economic and political justice has been taken from the Russian Revolution in the Indian Constitution

Ans. A

  1. Which statement is not correct in the case of “Sovereign India”?

(A) India is not dependent on any country

(B) India is not a colony of any other country

(C) India can give any part of its country to any other country

(D) India is obliged to obey the UN in its internal affairs

Ans. D

  1. K.M. Munshi was related to……

(A) Constitution draft committee

(B) Preamble Committee

(C) Public Accounts Committee

(D) None of the following

Ans. A

  1. Which year is related to Berubari Case?

(A) 1972

(B) 1976

(C) 1970

(D) 1960

Ans. D

  1. What is the true meaning of “Secular”?

(A) All religions are equal in the eyes of the government

(B) Special importance to a religion related to minorities

(C) One religion is promoted by the government

(D) None of the following

Ans. A

  1. What is the meaning of “social equality” in the Indian Constitution?

(A) Lack of opportunities

(B) Lack of equality

(C) Equal opportunities for all sections of the societies

(D) None of the following

Ans. C

  1. Who among the following said that the preamble of the Indian Constitution is “The Keynote of the Constitution”?

(A) Ernest Barker

(B) Jawaharlal Nehru

(C) Dr. Ambedkar

(D) Nelson Mandela

Ans. A

  1. Which of the following statements is true?

(A) In the Berubari case the Supreme Court had said that the preamble of the Constitution is not a part of the Constitution

(B) In the Keshavanand Bharti case, the Supreme Court had said that the preamble of the Constitution is part of the Constitution

(C) “Preamble” of the Indian Constitution has been taken from the Constitution of Canada

(D) None of the above

Ans. D

  1. “The language of Preamble” of the Indian constitution is taken from the constitution of……

(A) America

(B) Canada

(C) Australia

(D) Ireland

Ans. C

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Indian Polity High Court of the State

by Mr. DJ
written by Mr. DJ

GK Quiz and Answer on Indian Polity High Court of the State

The role of the courts in a democratic country like India is very important. That is why it is expected from the aspirants of different services to have good understanding of Indian Judicial System. So to cater these aspirants we made a quiz of 10 questions based on the High Court in India.

The role of the courts in a democratic country like India is very important. That is why it is expected from the aspirants of different services to have good understanding of Indian Judicial System. So to cater these aspirants we made a quiz of 10 questions based on the “High Court in India”.

  1. Which of the following is the latest High Court in India?
    (A) Calcutta
    (B) Madras
    (C) Bombay
    (D) Allahabad
    Ans. D
  2. How many High Courts are in the India currently?
    (A) 31
    (B) 27
    (C) 24
    (D) 33
    Ans. C
  3. Which of the following statements is not true?
    (A) The institution of High Court in India was first formed in 1862
    (B)  Article 214 to 231 of the Indian constitution envisages about the powers of the High Court
    (C) Only Delhi is a Union territory which has its own High Court
    (D) Only Parliament determines the number of judges in the High Court
    Ans. D
  4. Who can extend the jurisdiction of a High Court?
    (A) Parliament of India
    (B) President of India
    (C) Supreme Court of India
    (D) The governor of the state
    Ans. A
  5. Who does not participate in the appointment of the High Court Judge?
    (A) Governor of the State
    (B) Chief Minister of the state
    (C) Chief Justice of the High Court of the respective state
    (D) President of India
    Ans. B
  6. Which of the following statements is not true?
    (A) The Governor administers the High Court Judge
    (B) The Judge of the High Court submits his resignation letter to the Chief Justice of the same court
    (C) A person can remain a judge in the High Court up to the age of 62 years
    (D) No High Court Judge has been impeached so far
    Ans. B
  7. On which ground a High Court Judge can be impeached?
    (A) Proven misconduct
    (B) Incompetence
    (C) Both a and b
    (D) None of the above
    Ans. C
  8. How can the High Court Judge be removed?
    (A)  A resolution passed by the general majority of the Parliament
    (B) By the Supreme Court on the advice of the President
    (C) A resolution passed by the special majority of the respective state
    (D)  A resolution passed by the  Parliament With a special majority
    Ans. D
  9. The High Court judge gets the pension from……..
    (A) India’s Accumulated Fund
    (B) From the Accumulated Fund of the State
    (C) From Contingency Fund
    (D) None of the following
    Ans. A
  10. Which of the following state does not have a High Court?
    (A) Nagaland
    (B) Tripura
    (C) Manipur
    (D) Meghalaya
    Ans. A
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Indian Polity Directive Principles of State Policy

by Mr. DJ
written by Mr. DJ

GK Quiz and Answer on Indian Polity Directive Principles of State Policy

Here is the quiz of 8 questions based on the Directive Principles of State along with answers. We hope that this quiz will be useful for those aspirants who are preparing for exams like UPSC / PCS / SSC / CDS etc.

GK Quiz on Directive Principles of State Policy

Here is the quiz of 8 questions based on the Directive Principles of State along with answers. We hope that this quiz will be useful for those aspirants who are preparing for exams like UPSC / PCS / SSC / CDS.

 

  1. In which part of the Indian constitution the Directive Principle of State Policy are mentioned?

(A) Part 2

(B) Part 3

(C) Part 4

(D) Part 5

Ans. C

  1. Which of the following statements is not correct about Directive Principle of State Policy?

(A) If a State does not apply Directive Principle of State Policy, then a case may be filed against it in court.

(B) ‘Gandhism’ is also an element of Directive Principle of State Policy.

(C) Principles have been taken from the Constitution of Ireland.

(D) These principles are not binding on the state.

Ans. A

  1. Which of the following is not the specialty of Directive Principle of State Policy?

(A) These are constitutional directives for the State Legislative, executive, and administrative matters.

(B) The Directive Principles are similar to the instructions outlined in the Government of India Act, 1935.

(C)Directive Principle can be implemented by the court in case of their violation.

(D) These are made for the creation of a public welfare state.

Ans. C

  1. The Directive Principle have been taken from the constitution of………. ?

(A) Britain

(B) Canada

(C) America

(D) Ireland

Ans. D

  1. Which of the following act is covered under the elements of Directive Principle?

(A) Ban on the slaughter of cow, calves, and other milch and drought cattle.

(B) All citizens have the right to get equal opportunities for livelihood.

(C) Equal pay for equal work for men and women.

(D) All

Ans. D

  1. Which of the following is mis-matched?

(A) Article 40: The formation of village Panchayats

(B) Article 44: Uniform Civil Code

(C) Article 41: Organization of Agriculture and Animal Husbandry

(D) Article 39A: Good Justice and Free Legal Education

Ans. C

  1. The elements of the Directive Principle of State Policy are explained in the articles………

(A) From 36 to 51

(B) From 12 to 35

(C) From 5 to 11

(D) None of the above

Ans. A

  1. Which of the following statements is correct about the ‘Directive Principles of State Policy’?

(A) They are not moral and political.

(B) Their nature is socialist.

(C) These are automatically applied to the state.

(D) They can be legally enforced by the court.

Ans. B

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Fundamental Duties of Indian Citizens ( Best )

by Mr. DJ
written by Mr. DJ

GK Questions and Answers on Fundamental Duties of Indian Citizens

Gk By Mr. Dj is giving a quiz of 10 questions based on ‘Fundamental Duties’ to help aspirants of IAS / PCS / SSC / CDS and other competitive exams. We hope this quiz will be helpful in your success.

 

Fundamental Duties

The fundamental duties were incorporated in Part IV-A of our constitution by 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976. Presently we have 11 fundamental duties in our constitution under article 51-A, which are statutory duties and are enforceable by law. The idea behind the incorporation of the fundamental rights was to emphasise the obligation of the citizen in exchange of the comprehensive fundamental rights enjoyed by them.

GK Questions and Answers on Fundamental Duties of Indian Citizens

GK Questions and Answers on Fundamental Duties of Indian Citizens

  1. The constitution of India, adopted Fundamental Duties from the constitution of …….

(A) America

(B) Japan

(C) Russia

(D) Britain

Ans. C

  1. When Fundamental Duties were added in the Constitution of India?

(A) 1976

(B) 1965

(C) 1970

(D) 1992

Ans. A

  1. At present how many Fundamental Duties are in the Constitution of India?

(A) 6

(B) 7

(C) 10

(D) 11

Ans. D

  1. In the Indian Constitution, Fundamental Duties are given in which article?

(A) Article 12 to 35

(B) Article 51A

(C) Article 36 to 50

(D) Article 19

Ans. B

  1. Which of the following statements is false?

(A) Fundamental Duties are given in Part IV of the Constitution

(B) After the 42th constitutional amendment Fundamental Duties have been added to the Constitution of India.

(C) In 2002, after the 82nd Constitution Amendment Act, another Fundamental Duty was added.

(D) Public Representation Act, Built in1951.

Ans. C

  1. Which of the following committee advocated the Fundamental Duties in the Indian constitution?

(A) Verma Committee

(B) Sarkaria Committee

(C) Balwantrai Mehta Committee

(D) Swarn Singh Committee

Ans. D

  1. Which of the following is not the Fundamental Duty?

(A) Safeguarding public property

(B) To obey the parents

(C) To make compulsory education to children of 6 to 14 years

(D) To spread brotherhood among the people

Ans. B

  1. Which Constitutional Amendment Act was passed to provide compulsory education to children between 6 and 14 years?

(A) 82nd

(B) 83rd

(C) 86th

(D) 84th

Ans.c

  1. Which of the following is not matched correctly?

(A) Forest Conservation Act: 1980

(B) Wildlife Protection Act: 1974

(C) Public Representation Act: 1951

(D) Civil Duties Protection Act: 1955

Ans. B

  1. When was the ‘Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act’ passed?

(A) 1976

(B) 1972

(C) 1974

(D) 1971

Ans. D

GK Questions and Answers on Fundamental Duties of Indian Citizens

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Indian Polity Constitutional Amendment in India

by Mr. DJ
written by Mr. DJ

GK Quiz and Answer on Indian Polity Constitutional Amendment in India

Here is the quiz of 10 questions based on the Constitutional Amendment in India along with answers. We hope that this quiz will be useful for those aspirants who are preparing for exams like UPSC / PCS / SSC / CDS.

Here is the quiz of 10 questions based on the Constitutional Amendment in India along with answers. We hope that this quiz will be useful for those aspirants who are preparing for exams like UPSC / PCS / SSC / CDS.

  1. Article 368 is related to…………?

(A) Constitutional amendment

(B)  Supreme Court

(C)  Centre State Relations

(D) None of the above

Ans. A

Explanation: Article 368 in the Part XX of the Indian constitution deals with the powers of the parliament to amend the constitution and its procedure.

  1. The process of Constitutional amendment in India is taken from……..?

(A) America

(B) Japan

(C) South Africa

(D) Canada

Ans. C

Explanation: Indian constitution has borrowed 2 features from the constitution of South Africa;1. Election of members of the Rajya Sabha

  1. In how many ways the Constitutional amendment in India can take place?

(A) 2

(B) 3

(C) 4

(D) 1

Ans. B

Explanation: There are three ways to amend the constitution of India are: simple majority of parliament, special majority of parliament and special majority of parliament plus consent of the states.

  1. Which of the following provisions can be passed with the simple majority of the Parliament?

(A) Removal of Chief justice of Supreme Court

(B) Constitution of State Legislative Council

(C) Salaries and allowances of Members of Parliament

(D) Fundamental Rights

Ans. D

Explanation: Laws related to Fundamental Rights, abolition or creation of new states and acquisition & termination of the citizenship can be changed by simple majority of the Parliament.

  1. What kind of majority is needed in the parliament for Rescheduling of the constituencies?

(A) Special majority of Parliament

(B)  General majority of Parliament

(C) Special majority of Parliament and approval by the states

(D) None of the above

Ans. B

Explanation: General majority of Parliament

  1. In which of the following case, a special majority is used in the Parliament?

(A). Removal of Vice President

(B). For removing Speaker & Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha

(C). Acquisition and Termination of Citizenship

(D). For Removal of Chairman or Vice-Chairman of the Legislative Council

Ans. C

Explanation: Acquisition and Termination of Citizenship

  1. If there are 545 members in the Lok Sabha, five members are absent, 50 do not participate in the voting, and how many members will be required to pass a bill from the effective majority in Lok Sabha?

(A) 270

(B) 254

(C) 276

(D) 245

Ans. D

Explanation: 245

  1. How can the Supreme Court judge and CAG be removed?

(A) Full majority + voting by 2/3 members present

(B) Voting only by the present 2/3 members

(C) Bill passed in the Parliament by simple majority

(D) None of the above

Ans. A

Explanation: Full majority + voting by 2/3 members present

  1. Which of the following Constitution amended the age of voting from 21 to 18?

(A) 51st

(B) 48th

(C) 61st

(D) 86th

Ans. C

Explanation: The Sixty-first Amendment’ of the Constitution of India, officially known as The Constitution (Sixty-first Amendment) Act, 1989, lowered the voting age of elections to the Lok Sabha and to the Legislative Assemblies of States from 21 years to 18 years.

  1. Which of the following is not matched correctly?

(A) Constitution (64th Amendment) Act: 1990

(B) Constitution (69th Amendment) Act: 1991

(C) Constitution (100th Amendment) Act: 2015

(D) Constitution (45th Amendment) Act: 1985

Ans. D

Explanation: Constitution (45th Amendment) Act was passed in 1980.

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Indian Polity Parliamentary System in India

by Mr. DJ
written by Mr. DJ

GK Quiz and Answer on Indian Polity Parliamentary System in India

Here is the quiz of 10 questions based on the Parliamentary System in India along with answers and explanation of the answers. In India, it is the Supreme Legislative body and pride of any citizen. Constitution Day is celebrated on 26 November, as on this day the Constituent Assembly adopted the Indian Constitution. Let us have a look on the Parliamentary System of India in the form of questions and answers.

GK Quiz and Answer on Indian Polity Parliamentary System in India

The Parliament of India is a bicameral legislature composed of President of India and consists of the two houses: the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha. The legislative proposals are brought in the form of bills here and it becomes an act when passed by both the houses of parliament and approved by the President of India. Parliament House is also known as Sansad Bhavan which is located in Delhi. Let us study more about Parliamentary system through this quiz.

  1. “Parliamentary Government” is also known as….

(A) Cabinet Government

(B) Responsible Government

(C) Westminster forms of government

(D) All of the above

Ans. D

Explanation: The Parliamentary Government is also known as cabinet government or Responsible Government responsible and Westminster forms of government and is prevalent in Britain, Japan Canada, India and other countries.

  1. 2. Which of the following characteristics is not related to Parliamentary Government?

(A) Resolution of lower house

(B) Collective liability

(C) Leadership of the Prime Minister

(D) Single Executive

Ans. D

Explanation: features of parliamentary system are: Dual Executive, majority party rule, collective responsibility, political homogeneity, double membership, leadership of Prime Minister, dissolution of lower and house fusion of power.

  1. Which of the following is not the merit of the Presidential System?

(A) Permanent Government

(B) Confirmation in policies

(C) Limited Representation

(D) Government by experts

Ans. C

Explanation: Features of presidential system are: single executive, non-responsibility, political homogeneity may not exist, domination of president, no dissolution power of lower house and separation of powers.

  1. Which of the following is a demerit of the Parliamentary System?

(A) Compressed representation

(B) Uncertainty of policies

(C) Temporary Government

(D) All of the above

Ans. D

Explanation: All of the above are demerits of the Parliamentary System.

  1. Which of the following statements is not correct?

(A) According to the 42nd and the 44th amendment, it is compulsory for president to comply with the advice of the Council of Ministers.

(B) Presidential System is based on double executive.

(C) According to the Article 74 the Council of Ministers works under the leadership of the Prime Minister.

(D) Article 74 and 75 provides parliamentary system in the center.

Ans. B

Explanation: Presidential System is based on single executive.

  1. Which of the following characteristics is not related to the Presidential System?

(A) Governance of the Prime Minister

(B) Single Executive

(C) Single Membership

(D) Dissolution of lower house is baned

Ans. A

Explanation: Presidential System is the Governance of the President.

  1. Which of the following characteristics is not related to the federal government?

(A) Written Constitution

(B) Flexible Constitution

(C) Supremacy of the Constitution

(D) Independent Judiciary

Ans. B

Explanation: Flexible Constitution provision is not related to the federal government.

  1. In the Federal Government…………….

(A) All the powers and functions are vested in the Central Government and Regional Government.

(B) All powers are divided into Central Government and Regional Government

(C) Both A and B

(D) None of the above

Ans. B

Explanation: Both A and B

  1. The Federal System in India is based on the model of which country?

(A) Canada

(B) UK

(C) America

(D) Japan

Ans. A

Explanation: The Federal System in India is adopted from the Canada.

  1. Which of the following statements is wrong?

(A) Lok Sabha represents the people of India.

(B) The Rajya Sabha represents the states.

(C) There are only 98 topics in the center list at this time.

(D) Rajya Sabha protects the state with unnecessary interference from the Center

Ans. C

Explanation: The Union List or List-I is a list of 101 items given in Seventh Schedule in the Constitution of India on which Parliament has exclusive power to legislate.

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Indian Polity Center State Relations in India

by Mr. DJ
written by Mr. DJ

GK Quiz and Answer on Indian Polity Center State Relations in India

For the help of the aspirants preparing for UPSC/ PCS/SSC /CDS and other completive exams, Jagaran Josh published this set of 10 questions based on the Center State Relations in India. We hope that this set will be helpful for job aspirants in the upcoming exams.  

Dear students try to solve this set of 10 questions based on the ‘Center State Relations in India’ and increase the chances of your selection in the prestigious exams like UPSC/PCS/SSC/CDS etc.

  1. Which of the following subject comes under the Central Government?

(A) Banking

(B) Agriculture

(C) Prison

(D) Public health

Ans. A

Explanation: Union Government has 100 subjects under the union list which includes defence, banking, currency, atomic energy, insurance and communication etc.

  1. How many topics are currently covered in concurrent list?

(A) 100

(B) 57

(C) 61

(D) 52

Ans. D

Explanation: Currently there are 52 subjects in the concurrent list. Originally there were 47 subjects.

  1. Which subject comes under the concurrent list?

(A) Newspaper

(B) Fisheries

(C) Market

(D) Census

Ans. A

Explanation: Concurrent list comprises Population, marriage and divorce, drugs, newspaper, books and printing press.

  1. Which of the following is not matched correctly?

(A) Union List: Insurance

(B) State list: Agriculture

(C) Concurrent list: Communication

(D) Both A and B

Ans. C

Explanation: Communication is covered under the centre list.

  1. In which Part of the Indian constitution, Central-State relations are mentioned.

(A) Part XI

(B) Part X

(C) Part IV

(D) Part XII

Ans. A

Explanation: Central-State relations are mentioned from article 245 to 255 in Part XI of the constitution.

  1. Which of the following taxes is/are levied, collected and keep by the State Government?

Code

(1) Land Taxes

(2) Octroi tax

(3) Agricultural income tax

(A) Only 1

(B) Only 2,3

(C) Only 1,2

(D) All 1,2,3

Ans. D

Explanation: Land Taxes, Octroi tax and Agricultural income tax comes under the ambit of state government.

  1. Which of the following is not related to the Administrative Reform Commission?

(A) Rajmannar Committee

(B) Sarkaria Commission

(C) West Bengal Remembrance Letter

(D) Hanumantaiya Commission

Ans. B

Explanation: Sarkaria Commission was related to centre state relation. This commission was formed in 1983.

  1. Which of the following is not matched correctly?

(A) Rajmannar Committee: 1969

(B) Punchhi Commission: 2001

(C) Sarkaria Commission: 1983

(D) Anand Pur Sahib Proposal: 1973

Ans. B

Explanation: In April 2007, a three member commission headed by the former chief justice of India M.M. Punchhi was set up by the UPA Government to take a fresh look at relative roles and responsibilities of various levels of government and their inter-relations.

  1. Which of the following is matched correctly?

(A) Finance Commission: Article 256

(B) Money borrowed by the central government: Article 262

(C) Power to delegate the work to the Federation of States: Article 278

(D) Grant by the Union to States: Article 275

Ans. D

Explanation: Grants under Article 275 (1) of the Constitution of India. Such sums as Parliament may by law provide shall be charged on the Consolidated Fund of India in each year as grants-in-aid of the revenues of such States as Parliament may determine to be in need of assistance.

  1. Which of the following recommendations is not of the Sarkaria Commission?

(A) There is no need to consult states before making the law on the concurrent list

(B) The governor’s rule should not be reduced to 5 years before time without any concrete reason.

(C) No autonomy for radio and television

(D) None of the above

Ans. A

Explanation: The central government should consult states before making the law on the concurrent list

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Indian Polity Emergency Provisions in India

by Mr. DJ
written by Mr. DJ

GK Quiz and Answer on Indian Polity Emergency Provisions in India

In this set a questionnaire of 10 questions on ’emergency provisions’ is being given, in which questions have been answered with explanation for the convenience of the students. Hope this quiz will help a lot to aspirants preparing for IAS / PCS / SSC / CDS and other competitive exams.

In this set a questionnaire of 10 questions on ’emergency provisions’ is being given, in which questions have been answered with explanation for the convenience of the students. Hope this quiz will help a lot to aspirants preparing for IAS / PCS / SSC / CDS and other competitive exams.

  1. Which of the following constitutional amendments equipped President to impose National Emergency on any particular part of India?

(A) 38th

(B) 40th

(C) 42nd

(D) 62nd

Ans. C

Explanation: The right to impose the National Emergency to the whole country or only one part of it was given to the President on the basis of the 42th constitutional amendment.

  1. When was the word “armed rebellion” added to the Constitution to declare a National Emergency?

(A) After 44th Constitution Amendment Act

(B) After 42nd Constitution Amendment Act

(C) After 40th Constitution Amendment Act

(D) After 38th Constitution Amendment Act

Ans. A

Explanation: In 1978 by the 44th Constitution Amendment Act,the term ‘internal disturbance’ was replaced by the “armed rebellion” because Indira Gandhi misused it.

  1. How soon imposition of National Emergency should be approved by the Parliament?

(A) 1 month

(B) 2 months

(C) 6 months

(D) 3 months

Ans. A

Explanation: Initially, the approval of Parliament should have been done in 2 months but it was reduced to 1 month by 44th Constitution Amendment Act.

  1. If the announcement of the National Emergency has been approved by both Houses of Parliament, how long will it be effective?

(A) 1 month

(B) 2 months

(C) 6 months

(D) 3 months

Ans. C

Explanation: If the announcement of the National Emergency has been approved by both Houses of Parliament, it will continue for 6 months but it should be re-approved after every 6 months.

  1. Which kind of emergency will be imposed in the case of war, external aggression and armed rebellion?

(A) 356

(B) 352

(C) 360

(D) None of the following

Ans. B

Explanation: National Emergency (under article 352) is imposed in the situation of war, external attacks and armed uprising.

  1. How many times have the financial emergency imposed in India?

(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) Never

Ans. D

Explanation: Financial Emergency (Article 360) in India is not implemented yet.

  1. Which of the following Fundamental Rights do not get abolished automatically during National Emergency?

(A) Article 19

(B) Article20

(C) Article21

(D) Both b and c

Ans. D

Explanation: In the case of a National Emergency, Fundamental Rights under the Article 20 (Protection in respect of conviction) and Article 21 (Right to life) do not abolish automatically.

  1. Which of the following statements is not true?

(A) The Fundamental Rights of Article 19 are susepnded automatically during National Emergency declared on the basis of war or external aggression .

(B) The Fundamental Rights of Article 19 can not be suspended in the case of National Emergency declared on the basis of armed rebellion.

(C) Article 19 automatically revives when the National Emergency is over.

(D) When a National Emergency is enforced, the Fundamental Rights of Article 19 are repealed after the President’s order.

Ans. D

Explanation: When a National Emergency is enforced, the Fundamental Rights under Article 19 are automatically canceled, no separate order is required.

  1. How many times have the National Emergency been implemented in India?

(A) 2

(B) 3

(C) 4

(D) 5

Ans. B

Explanation: So far 3 times (1962, 1971 and 1975) National Emergencies have been implemented.

  1. Which of the following is a synonym of emergency?

(A) President’s Rule

(B) State emergency

(C) Constitutional emergency

(D) All

Ans. D

Explanation: President’s rule is also known as State Emergency and Constitutional Emergency.

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Indian Polity President of India

by Mr. DJ
written by Mr. DJ

GK Quiz and Answer on Indian Polity President of India

In this article, a questionnaire of 10 questions is being given based on the President of India, in which questions have also been answered explained for the convenience of the students. Hope, this quiz will help a lot to competitors preparing for IAS / PCS / SSC / CDS and other competitive exams.

In this article, a questionnaire of 10 questions is being given based on the President of India, in which questions have also been answered & explained for the convenience of the students. Hope this quiz will help a lot to competitors preparing for IAS / PCS / SSC / CDS and other competitive exams.

  1. Which Article of the Indian Constitution says that there shall be a President of India?

(A) 61

(B) 62

(C) 52

(D) 74

Answer C

Explanation: Article 52 to 78 in Part V of the Constitution deal with the Union Executive. According to Article 52, India shall have a President.

  1. Who participates in the Presidential election?

(A) Elected members of both Houses of Parliament

(B) Elected and nominated members of the State Legislative Assembly

(C) Members of all Union Territories

(D) All of the above

Answer A

Explanation: In the Presidential election, elected members of both houses of parliament, elected members of the state legislature and only elected members of Delhi and Puducherry Legislatures participate.

  1. What qualifications should be to become a President?

(A) 35 years of age

(B) He should be eligible to be elected as a member of Rajya Sabha.

(C) Must be an Indian citizen

(D) Only a and c

Answer D

Explanation: To become President of India, candidate must be 35 years old, must be an Indian citizen and should be eligible to be elected as a member of Lok Sabha.

  1. Which of the following statements is wrong?

(A) Elected and nominated members of the State Legislative Assembly participate in the presidential election.

(B)  The Union Executive includes the President, Vice President, Prime Minister, Attorney General of India

(C) Impeachment may be initiated against the President for ‘breach of constitution’

(D) Article 56 envisages the tenure of the President

Answer A

Explanation: Only elected members of the State Legislative Assembly participate in the presidential election, nominated members do not participate.

  1. Which of the following is not matched?

(A) Article 54: Presidential election

(B) Article 55: manner of presidential election

(C) Article 60: Procedure for impeachment of the President

(D) Article 123: Power of the President to promulgate ordinance

Answer C

Interpretation: Article 60 is related to oath and affirmation of the President.

  1. Which article of Indian constitution envisages that there shall be an Attorney General of India?

(A) Article 78

(B) Article 76

(C) Article 67

(D) Article 113

Answer B

Interpretation: Article 76 envisages that India shall have an Attorney General.

  1. How can the post of President be vacant?

(A) On expiry of his tenure

(B) By his resignation

(C) Only on the commencement of impeachment in Rajya Sabha

(D) Only a and b

Answer D

Explanation: The post of the President will be vacant in the following ways: upon the expiry of the tenure, on giving the resignation letter and the completion of the impeachment process in the Parliament.

  1. Which of the following statements is not correct?

(A) President is the head of military forces of India

(B)President can appoint a commission to investigate into the conditions of SCs and STs.

(C) Parliament can declare any area as scheduled area

(D) President of India chooses the chairman of the Finance Commission

Answer C

Explanation:  President of India can declare any area as schedule area.

  1. In which of the following article provision of National Emergency is mentioned?

(A) Article 356

(B) Article 352

(C) Article 360

(D) Article 365

Answer B

Explanation: Article 352 envisages the National Emergency in the country.

  1. Impeachment of the President can be initiated in………….

(A) Only in Lok Sabha

(B) Only in Rajya Sabha

(C) In either house of Parliament

(D) Supreme Court

Ans. C

Explanation: The impeachment charges against President can be initiated in either house of Parliament.

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GeneralUncategorized

Indian Polity Vice President of India

by Mr. DJ
written by Mr. DJ

GK Quiz and Answer on Indian Polity Vice President of India

According to the Indian Constitution Article 63 states that There shall be a Vice President of India. In 1950, the post of Vice President was introduced. Dr. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan became the first Vice President of India. Let us have a look about Vice President through questions and answers.

In this article, a quiz of 10 questions are generated on the Vice President of India in which the answers and interpretation of questions for the convenience of the students has been given with an explanation. We hope this quiz will help competitors preparing for IAS / PCS / SSC / CDS and other competitive exams.

  1. Which article of Indian Constitution says that India shall be a Vice-President?

(A) 52

(B) 61

(C) 62

(D) 63

Answer D

Explanation: Article 63 of the Indian constitution envisages that there shall be a Vice-President of India.

  1. Which of the following is not matched correctly?

(A) Article 64: Vice President will be the Ex-Officio Chairman of the State Councils

(B) Article 65: Vice Presidential election

(C) Article 69: swearing by the Vice President

(D) Article 61: Vice President’s tenure

Answer D

Explanation: Article 61 is related to the swearing in of the Vice –President of India.

  1. Which of the following statements is false?

(A) The current salary of Vice President is 1.25 lakh per month

(B) While acting as a caretaker President, the Vice President does not act as the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.

(C) Vice President may be re-elected on his post

(D) The post of Vice President of India has been taken from the Constitution of France

Answer D

Explanation: The post of Vice President of India is based on the model of Vice President of America.

  1. Which of the following Vice President was elected un-opposed?

(A) S. Radhakrishnan

(B) R. Venkataraman

(C) V. V. Giri

(D) None of the above

Answer A

Explanation: S. Radhakrishnan, Hidayatullah, Shankar Dayal Sharma were elected un-opposed.

  1. Who among the following can contest the election of Vice President while remaining in office?

(A) President

(B) Vice President

(C) Governor of the State

(D) All

Answer D

Explanation: The President, Vice President, the Governor of the State and the Union or the Minister of State are not considered for the post of profit, so all the Vice-Presidential candidates can contest the election.

  1. How can the Vice-President be removed from the post?

(A) By the full process of impeachment

(B) The Rajya Sabha can remove him by passing the resolution with absolute majority but the consent of the Lok Sabha is necessary.

(C) Both by a and b

(D) None of the following

Answer B

Explanation: To remove the Vice President from the post, the resolution can be passed by the Rajya Sabha by the full majority, but the consent of the Lok Sabha is necessary. A 14-day notice should also be given to the Vice President.

  1. What conditions should be met for a candidate to become Vice President?

(A) Candidate should not hold office of profit

(B) Candidate should not be a member of any House of Parliament

(C) Candidate may be a member of State Legislature

(D) Only a and b

Answer D

Explanation: A candidate for the post of Vice President should not hold any office of profit, should also not be a Member of Parliament and State Legislature.

  1. Which of the following statements is false?

(A) The Vice-President’s powers are similar to the Speaker of the Rajya Sabha as Speaker of the House.

(B) Vice President can act as a caretaker President for a maximum of one year.

(C) Vice President gives his resignation letter to the President

(D) None of the above statements are false.

Answer B

Explanation: Vice President can work as a acting President for a maximum period of 6 months.

  1. Who investigates all the disputes related to the Vice Presidential election?

(A) Parliament

(B) Supreme Court

(C) Election Commission

(D) Both b and c

Answer B

Explanation: All the controversies and doubts related to the election of the Vice President are examined and the Supreme Court decides whose final decision is final.

  1. Who among the following has never been Vice-President of India?

(A) Jaswant Singh

(B) Shankar Dayal Sharma

(C) Zakir Hussain

(D) B.D. Jatti

Answer A

Explanation: Jaswant Singh had fought against Hamid Ansari in Vice Presidential election in 2012, but defeated.

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